PART-1: NTA UGC NET COMMERCE JUNE 2023 – PAPER II, SHIFT II SOLVED
101. Question ID
908551
1. Which of the following economic narratives relates the trade between any two countries to the sign of their economics?
2. Fisher effect
3. Gravity model
4. Kuznets Curve
The correct answer is:
3. Gravity model
Explanation:
a. Gravity Model:
The
gravity model in economics is a mathematical model used to predict the trade
flows between two countries (or regions) based on their economic sizes (usually
measured by GDP) and the distance between them.
It
draws an analogy from Newton's law of universal gravitation, where the force
between two objects is directly proportional to the product of their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
In
the context of international trade, the gravity model suggests that larger
economies (higher GDP) are more likely to trade with each other, and the volume
of trade decreases as the distance between them increases.
This
model does not directly relate to the "sign of their economics" as
stated in the question. Instead, it focuses on the economic sizes (GDP) and the
geographical distance between countries as determinants of trade flows.
b. Other Options
Explained:
Phillips
Curve (A): Describes the inverse relationship between inflation and
unemployment rates in an economy, not related to trade between countries.
Fisher
Effect (B): Describes the relationship between nominal interest rates, real
interest rates, and inflation rates, not related to trade between countries.
Kuznets
Curve (D): Represents a hypothesized relationship between economic development
(measured by per capita income) and income inequality within a society, not
related to trade between countries.
Conclusion:
The correct choice, C.
Gravity model, specifically pertains to the prediction of trade flows between
countries based on their economic sizes and the distance between them, aligning
with the concept of "gravity" as an analogy to trade patterns. Thus,
the gravity model best fits the description provided in the question.
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Question ID 908552
2. Brewing financial
stress endangering economic stability in developed economics is the immediate
consequence of which of the following?
1. Fiscal indispline
2. Rising price level
3. Over leverage
4. Increased interest
rates
The correct answer is:
4. Increased interest
rates
Explanation:
a. Impact of Increased Interest Rates:
In
developed economies, an increase in interest rates can indeed lead to brewing
financial stress and endanger economic stability for several reasons:
b. Debt Servicing Costs:
Higher interest rates increase the cost of
borrowing for individuals, businesses, and governments. This can strain
borrowers who have significant levels of debt, especially if they have borrowed
at variable rates or have debt with short maturities.
c. Asset Price Volatility:
Higher interest rates can lead to volatility
in asset prices, particularly in real estate and financial markets. This
volatility can affect the balance sheets of financial institutions and
investors, potentially leading to financial stress.
d. Impact on Consumption and Investment:
Higher interest rates can reduce consumer
spending and business investment. Consumers may cut back on borrowing for bigticket
items like homes and cars, while businesses may postpone or reduce capital
expenditures. This slowdown in economic activity can affect overall economic
stability.
e. Government Borrowing Costs:
Governments with high levels of debt may face
increased borrowing costs as interest rates rise. This can lead to higher
fiscal deficits and potential concerns about fiscal sustainability.
f. Financial Instability:
Financial institutions, particularly those
heavily reliant on short-term borrowing or involved in complex financial
products, can face increased funding costs when interest rates rise. This can
lead to liquidity problems and potential financial instability.
Comparison with Other Options:
Fiscal Indiscipline (Option A): While fiscal indiscipline can lead to concerns about government debt and longterm economic stability, it typically manifests differently from immediate financial stress caused by interest rate increases.
Rising Price Level (Option B): While inflation (rising price levels) can affect economic stability, it is not typically the immediate consequence of financial stress caused by interest rate increases. Inflation usually has more gradual and diverse effects on the economy.
Over Leverage (Option C): Over leverage certainly contributes to financial vulnerability, but the immediate consequence of financial stress related to interest rate increases is more directly tied to the cost and availability of borrowing and investment.
Conclusion:
In summary, Increased interest rates (Option D) directly impact borrowing costs, asset prices, consumption, investment, and financial stability in developed economies. Therefore, it is the correct answer as the immediate consequence of brewing financial stress endangering economic stability.
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Question ID 908553
3. Published by the
UNDP, the HDI is summary measure of human development. It measures the average
achievements of a country in three basic dimensions of human development and include
the following.
1. Standard of living.
Income and Occupation
2. Education.
Occupation and Health
3. Health, Education
and Standard of living
4. Poverty. Health and
Standard of living
The correct answer is:
3. Health, Education
and Standard of living
Explanation:
The Human Development
Index (HDI), published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), is a
summary measure of human development that includes the following three basic
dimensions:
a. Health: This dimension is measured using life expectancy at birth. It reflects the average number of years a newborn is expected to live, based on current mortality rates.
b. Education: This dimension is measured using two indicators:
Mean
years of schooling: The average number of years of education received by people
aged 25 years and older.
Expected
years of schooling: The number of years of schooling expected for a child
entering school at the current age.
c. Standard of Living: This dimension is measured using Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, adjusted for purchasing power parity (PPP) to account for differences in the cost of living between countries.
Breakdown of Incorrect Options:
Option 1: Standard of living. Income and
Occupation: This option combines aspects of income and occupation, which are
part of the standard of living dimension but does not encompass the full scope
of HDI's dimensions.
Option 2: Education. Occupation and Health: While education and health are indeed components of HDI, occupation is not directly included as a separate dimension in the HDI calculation.
Option 4: Poverty. Health and Standard of living: HDI does not directly measure poverty. Instead, it includes income (part of the standard of living dimension), life expectancy (health dimension), and education.
Conclusion:
The Human Development Index (HDI) summarizes a country's average achievements in health, education, and standard of living. These dimensions are quantified using specific indicators that reflect the quality of life and wellbeing of the population. Therefore, 3. Health, Education and Standard of living accurately describes the components included in the HDI calculation.
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Question ID 908554
4. A T Kearney foreign
Policy Globalization Index (2007) is a comprehensive framework to measure globalisation.
It is based in 12 variables, grouped into which the following four baskets?
1. Economic
integration. Political integration. Knowledge Integration, Social Integration
2. Personal
Integration. Technological integration. Economic integration Political integration
3. Social integration.
Political integration, Personal integration. Techno logical Integration
4. Knowledge
integration. Economic integration, Political integration Technological integration
The correct answer is:
2. Personal
Integration. Technological integration. Economic integration Political integration
Explanation:
The A.T. Kearney
Foreign Policy Globalization Index (2007) indeed categorizes its measurement
framework into four baskets, as follows:
Comparison with Other Options:
Conclusion:
In summary, the A.T.
Kearney Foreign Policy Globalization Index (2007) categorizes its measurement
framework into four baskets: Personal Integration, Technological Integration,
Economic Integration, and Political Integration. These baskets capture
different dimensions of globalization, including personal interactions,
technological advancements, economic flows, and political relationships.
Therefore, Option B. Personal Integration. Technological integration. Economic
integration. Political integration accurately reflects the components grouped
in the A.T. Kearney Globalization Index.
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Question ID 908555
5. Which one of the
below mentioned transaction is not a noncash transaction?
1. The acquision of
assets by assuming directly related liabilities
2. Conversion of debt
into equity
3. Interest on
dividend received from investing activities
4. The acquisition of
an enterprise by means of issue of share
The correct answer is:
3. Interest on
dividend received from investing activities
Explanation:
Noncash transactions
typically involve transactions where cash does not physically change hands.
Let's analyze each option to understand why option 3 is not a noncash
transaction:
This
transaction involves acquiring assets where the liabilities assumed are
directly related to those assets. It does not necessarily involve a direct
exchange of cash, as the liabilities are assumed rather than paid immediately
in cash. This can be considered a noncash transaction.
This
transaction involves converting debt (a liability) into equity (ownership
shares). It typically does not involve the exchange of cash but rather the
restructuring of the company's financial obligations. Hence, it is a noncash
transaction.
Dividends are payments made by companies to
their shareholders out of their earnings. Interest received on dividends from
investing activities is not a standard financial transaction. It seems to be a
misstatement or an incorrect term, as dividends are not typically referred to
as receiving interest. However, if we interpret this option as receiving
dividends from investments, dividends are usually distributed in cash and are
not considered a noncash transaction.
This
transaction involves acquiring another company by issuing shares of the
acquiring company's stock. It does not involve an exchange of cash but rather
an issuance of equity (shares) as consideration. Thus, it is a noncash
transaction.
Conclusion:
Among the options
provided, Option 3. Interest on dividend received from investing activities
stands out because dividends are typically distributed in cash and are not
considered noncash transactions. The other options involve financial activities
that typically do not involve a direct exchange of cash, hence qualifying as
noncash transactions. Therefore, Option 3 is the correct answer as it does not
fit the definition of a noncash transaction.
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Question ID 908056
6. A and B are equal partners, when partnership is dissolved, then capital are Rs. 40000 and Rs. 50000 respectively. After all assets are sold and liabilities paid, there is a cash balance of Rs. 80000. What is the amount of profit or loss on realization?
1. 10000 (Profit)
2. 20000 (Profit)
3. 30000 (Profit)
4. 10000 (Loss)
4. 10000 (Loss)
- The partnership is dissolved, and the assets are sold, resulting in a cash balance of Rs. 80,000.
- A and B's capital accounts are Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 50,000 respectively, totaling Rs. 90,000.
- The profit or loss on realization is calculated as the difference between the cash balance and the total capital.
- Since the cash balance is less than the total capital, the result is a loss of Rs. 10,000.
This loss indicates that after all assets were sold and liabilities paid off, the partners collectively received Rs. 10,000 less than their total capital contributions.
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Question ID 908057
7. From the following information you are required to compute Return on Total Capital employed.
Net Profit Rs. 100.000
Provision for tax Rs. 100.000
Income from Investment Rs. 10.000
Fixed Assets Rs. 450.000
Current assets Rs. 1.50.000
Interest on debenture Rs. 10.000
Reserves Rs. 100.000
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 40%
Question ID 908058
8. Which of the following is not the limitation of activity based costing?
A. It involves various support activities in the process of making products.
B. It does not provide relevant information for decision making.
C. All costs cannot be identified easily with a particular activity
D. Set up cost as well as costs of running and updating the ABC system are very high.
Question ID 908059
9. Substitution effect is usually larger than the income effect ill real world because
A. Consumes usually spends only a small proportion of income on any one community
B. Consumer often consumes a small number of commodities
C. Consumer only spends small portion of income or consumption
D. Consumers income is relatively smaller in relation to the consumption.
Question ID 908060
10. The practice of setting a price target by the firm and then developing a product that would allow the firm to maximize total profits at that price is called ___
A. Prestige pricing
B. Price lining
C. Price matching
D. Value pricing
Question ID 908061
11. Empirical studies indicate that long run average cost (LAC) curve is _____
A. L-shaped
B. U-shaped
C. S-shaped
D. V-shaped
Question ID 908062
12. Which of the following form of market organization is the most prevalent in the manufacturing sector?
A. Perfect competition
B. Monopolistic competition
C. Oligopoly
D. Duopoly
Question ID 908063
13. Which of the following describe an intervention currency :
A. The currency in which exporter choose to invoice then- exports
B. The currency in which cross-border transactions are paid for and closed
C. The currency in terms of which a domestic currency is quoted
D. The vehicle currency
Question ID 908064
14. From the followings which is an uncommon feature of Private Equity and Venture Capital.
A. Both invest in companies that are not able to or ready to gam capital from the public
B. Their investment is used for financial or operating restructuring of the invester companies
C. They are set up an independent pools of capital contributed by institutions or the high net worth individuals
D. Their activities are subject to few regulations
Question ID 908065
15. The total return for an equity stock during a year was 12.5 per cent. The rate of inflation during that year was 3.5 per cent. The real (inflation-adjusted) return was:
A. 9.26 per cent
B. 16.00 per cent
C. 7.65 per cent
D. 8.70 per cent
Question ID 908066
16. The optimal capital budget of a firm is reflected by intersection point of
A. Security market line and capital market line
B. Weighted average cost of capital curve and marginal cost of capital curve
C. Investment opportunity curve and marginal cost of capital curve
D. Weighted average cost of capital curve and investment opportunity curve.
Question ID 908067
17. In case of two variables, the estimated regression equation is y = 60+5x. The total sum of squares is 15730 and sum of square due to error is 1530. The estimated regression line based on this information is a
A. Poorest fit
B. Moderate fit
C. Good fit
D. Best fit
Question ID 908068
18. Experimental treatment in research design signifies which of the following ?
A. Selection of dependent variable
B. Manipulating independent variable
C. Selection of independent variable
D. Manipulating dependent variable
Question ID 908069
19. A point estimator is said to be consistent when
A. It has smaller standard error
B. Its expected value is equal to the population parameter
C. It tend to become closer to the population parameter as the sample size become larger
D. It is based on all available information
Question ID 908070
20. A population has a mean of 200 and a standard deviation of 50. Suppose a simple random sample of size 100 is selected then the probability that the sample mean will be ± 5 of the population mean is ____
A. 0.7523
B. 0.6928
C. 0.9544
D. 0.6826
Question ID 908071
21. In the process of perception, which one of the following is not an external factor influencing selection of stimuli?
A. Experience
B. Familiarity
C. Repetition
D. Novelty
Question ID 908072
22. Which one of the following values is not a part of OCTAPACE framework?
A. Openness
B. Extension
C. Proactivity
D. Autonomy
Question ID 908073
23. Which one of the following is the hiring related turnover cost when an employee quits an organization?
A. Advertising
B. Interviewing
C. Training
D. Recruiter fees
Question ID 908074
24. Which one of the following normative ethical theories has "Net benefit from the decision" as consideration in ethical decision making?
A. Ethics of duty
B. Theory of justice
C. Stock holder ethics
D. Utilitarianism
Question ID 908075
25. Which committee had recommended a comprehensive framework of reform in the insurance sector?
A. Ghosh Committee (1993)
B. Sodhani Committee (1994)
C. Malhotra Committee (1993)
D. Kalia Committee (1994)
Question ID 908076
26. Mutual Funds in India are regulated by:
A. Unit Trust of India
B. Department for Promotion of Industries and Internal trade
C. The Securities and Exchange Boar d of India
D. Department of financial Services
Question ID 908077
27. Which one of the following is a fully owned subsidiary of the R.B.I?
A. Indian Institute of Bank Management (IIBM)
B. National Institute of Bank Management (NIBM)
C. Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF)
D. Indian Financial T
echnology and Allied Services (IFTAS)
Question ID 908078
28. Which one group of the following countries are members of ASEAN?
A. Laos. Cambodia. Brunei
B. Malaysia. Thailand. Taiwan
C. Myanmar. Singapore, Hong Kong
D. Fiji. Laos. Cambodia
Question ID 908079
29. Which one of the advertising planning strategies is suitable for cars and appliances?
A. Informative strategy
B. Affective strategy
C. Habitual strategy
D. Satisfaction strategy
Question ID 908080
30. In which of the following segmentation criteria, the predictability of consumer choice behaviour is the highest?
A. Psychological
B. Demographic
C. Behavioural
D. Geodemographic
Question ID 908081
31. The sales step in which a salesperson leams as much as possible about a prospective customer before making a sales call is known as ___
A. Approach
B. Prospecting
C. Pre-approach
D. Presentation
Question ID 908082
32. All attacking strategy which involves introducing new products or technologies that rewrite the rules of competition in the market and avoid direct conflict with a rival is known as ____
A. Flanking
B. Bypass
C. Encirclement
D. Guerrilla
Question ID 908083
33. 'A' sells a mobile phone to 'B' a minor who pays for it by his cheque. A' endorses the cheque to 'C' who takes it hi good faith and for value. The cheque is dishonoured on presentation. Can 'C' enforce payment of the cheque ?
A. ‘C’ can enforce the payment of cheque only against ‘A'
B. ‘C’ can enforce the payment of cheque either against ‘A' or 'B'
C. ‘C’ can enforce payment of cheque both against ‘A’ and 'B'
D. ‘C’ can enforce the payment of cheque only against 'B'
Question ID 908084
34. The doctrine of “Caveat emptor” applies in which of the following situations?
A. When goods are sold by description
B. When goods are sold by sample
C. When goods are sold under implied conditions and warranties
D. When the buyer does not intimate the purpose to the seller and depends upon his own skill and judgement.
Question ID 908085
35. A letter of acceptance sufficiently stamped and duly addressed is put into course of transmission. There is a _____
A. Contract voidable at the option of acceptor
B. Contract voidable at the option of offeror
C. No contract at all
D. Valid contract
Question ID 908086
36. Oil attaining the age of majority, a minor's agreement
A. Can be ratified by him
B. Cannot be ratified by him
C. Becomes void
D. Becomes valid
Question ID 908087
37. X was appointed on 1st July 2022 as a lecturer in an University. He was continued on 30th April 2023. What would be the duration of the previous year for the assessment year 2023-24 for computation of income under the head Salary?
A. 1 July 2022 to 30 April 2023
B. 1 April 2022 to 31 Match 2023
C. 1 April 2022 to 30 April 2023
D. 1 July 2022 to 31 March 2023
Question ID 908088
38. When the income of a minor child is clubbed with the income of mother or father, how much the deduction will be allowed to mother or father?
A. Rs. 1500
B. Rs. 2000
C. Actual income clubbed with the income of mother or father, whichever is less
D. No deduction
Question ID 908089
39. A multinational company can use which prices to create profits in low tax regimes and loss in high tax regimes?
A. Divisional prices
B. Inter-Divisional Prices
C. Holding company prices
D. Transfer prices
Question ID 908090
40. "It is an art of dodging tax without actually breaking the law". This is related with:
A. Tax Management
B. Tax Avoidance
C. Tax Planning
D. Tax Evasion
Question ID 908091
41. Which of the following one considered as supply factors affecting the flow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
a. Customer Access
b. Economic Priorities
c. Resource Availability
d. Avoidance of Trade Barrier
e. Logistics
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. a and b only
B. b and d only
C. c and e only
D. a and e only
Question ID 908092
42. For customer's, which are the areas of ethical and social responsibility concerns?
a. Product safety
b. Fair Price
c. Fan Wages
d. TQM
e. Proper disclosures and information
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. c and d only
B. c, d and e only
C. a and e only
D. a, b and e only
Question ID 908093
43. Section 61 to 64 of the company act 2013 states 'Alteration proper' which includes:
a. Cancellation of the unissued shares
b. Cancellation of issued shares
c. Increase in share capital by issue of new shar e
d. Decrease of share capital by redemption of shares
e. Conversion of fully paid shares into stock and vice versa.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. b, c and d only
B. a, c and e only
C. c, d and e only
D. a, b and c only
Question ID 908094
44. From the operational point of view, which are the part of Environmental Audit
a. Environment Management System Audit
b. Social Audit
c. Compliance Audit
d. Site Property Audit
e. Energy Audit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. c, d and e only
B. a, c and d only
C. b, c and d only
D. a, d and e only
Question ID 908095
45. Which of the following cause demand of a product to increase?
a. An increase in consumer's income
b. An increase in the prices of substitutes
c. An increase in the price of complements
d. An increase in the number of substitutes
e. An increased taste for the commodity.
Choose the collect answer horn the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. c, d and e only
C. b, d and e only
D. a, b and e only
Question ID 908096
46. According to the theory of contestable markets, vigorous competition can take place even among few sellers if ___ and ____ .
a. Product is differentiated
b. Demand is infinitely elastic
c. Entry into the market is absolutely free
d. There are strong entry-exit barriers
e. Exit from the market is entirely costless.
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. a and d only
B. b and e only
C. a and c only
D. c and e only
Question ID 908097
47. Under which of the following market structures, products are differentiated and close substitutes?
a. Perfect competition
b. Monopolistic competition
c. Oligopoly
d. Duopoly
e. Monopoly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c and d only
C. c, d and e only
D. a, c and d only
Question ID 908098
48. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Euro Currency market?
a. The euro currency market does not have geographical limits
b. The euro currency market is unregulated
c. The euro currency market does not have deposit insurance
d. There are no restriction on the maximum interest payable or chargeable.
e. The euro currency market does not attract CRR and SLR restrictions.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, e and d only
C. e, c and a only
D. d, a and e only
Question ID 908099
49. The assumptions of Purchasing Power Parity Theory includes:
a. No costs for converting one currency to another
b. No restrictions on the movement of capital between countries
c. No restrictions on the movement of commodities between countries
d. No transaction costs for buying and selling financial security
e. No transportation costs for transporting a commodity from one country to another.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, d and c only
C. e, a and c only
D. d, a and e only
Question ID 908100
50. A box-plot is a graphical summary measures of data that displays
a. Mean
b. Q1
c. Median
d. Q3
e. Mode
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. c and e only
B. a, c and e only
C. c, d and b only
D. d, b and a only
Question ID 908101
51. In case of presence of outliers in a data set. which of the following can better measure the central tendency ?
a. Mode
b. Trimmed Mean
c. Arithmetic Mean
d. Median
e. Harmonic Mean
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. a and b only
B. b and c only
C. c and e only
D. b and d only
Question ID 908102
52. To remove 'order bias' in a questionnaire, usually researcher use which of the following:
a. Pivot questions
b. Multiple grid questions
c. Funnel technique
d. Filter questions
e. Leading questions
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below':
A. b, e and a only
B. d, e and b only
C. e, b and c only
D. c, d and a only
Question ID 908103
53. Which of the following are skills and capabilities related competencies?
a. Analysis
b. Intellectual curiosity
c. Organization
d. Problem solving
e. Ownership of assignments
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. a, c and d only
B. a, b and c only
C. b, c and d only
D. a, d and e only
Question ID 908104
54. Which of the following are the disadvantages of straight salary sales compensation plan?
a. Sales volume is emphasized over profits
b. Sales representative may overstock the customer
c. Low motivational impact
d. Difficult to attract or retain top sales performers
e. Sales representatives may focus on products that require least effort to sell
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. c, d and e only
B. a, b and c only
C. b, d and e only
D. a, c and d only
Question ID 908105
55. Which of the interventions can be used to manage the anxiety created by mergers and acquisitions
a. Speed-up of the integration process
b. Articulate a new vision, common goals and organizational symbols
c. Employee counselling and stress management training
d. Disengage efforts such as termination ceremonies
e. Social support from spouse, friends, supervisors and co-workers
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c and d only
C. a, c and e only
D. a, b and e only
Question ID 908106
56. Which is the legal framework governing the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
a. Regional Rural Banks Act. 1976
b. Regional Rural Banks Act. 1966
c. Small Industries Development Bank of India. 1989
d. Banking Regulations Act. 1949
e. Indian Partnership Act. 1932
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a and d only
B. b and d only
C. a and c only
D. b and e only
Question ID 908107
57. Which are the RBI notified domestic accredited credit rating agencies?
a. Brickwork ratings
b. Acvite ratings
c. CRISIL ratings
d. Standard and Poor's
e. Moody's
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. b and c only
B. c and d only
C. a and c only
D. c and e only
Question ID 908108
58. In the context of banking sector, spread is defined as a function of the following :
a. Forex
b. Net Interest income
c. Rate Sensitive Assets
d. Asset Ratio
e. Leverage Ratio
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. c and e only
B. a and c only
C. b and d only
D. b and e only
Question ID 908109
59. Which of the following are the reasons for manufacturers and retailers to brand their offerings?
a. Helps to gauge the level of product quality
b. Enables premium pricing
c. Contributes to corporate identity programmes
d. Informs about the source of a product
e. Develops customer loyalty.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. a, b, c and e only
B. b, c and e only
C. a, b, c and d only
D. a, d and e only
Question ID 908110
60. Which of the following are the tools for consumer promotions?
a. Price off
b. Refunds
c. Coupons
d. Event sponsorship
e. Off-invoice
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c, d and e
C. a, d and e only
D. b, c and d only
Question ID 908111
61. All agent is personally liable to third parties in which of the following situations?
a. If an agent acts for an undisclosed Principal
b. Trade usage and customs makes agent personally liable
c. If an agent signs a contract in Principal's name
d. If an agent acts for the named Principal
e. If an agent works for a foreign Principal.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. a, b and e only
C. c, d and e only
D. b, c and d only
Question ID 908112
62. If the application for information is rejected under the Right to Information Act 2005. the CPIO/SPIO is obligated which of the following to furnish the person seeking the information?
a. Power and functions of information commission
b. Reasons for such rejection
c. Obligation of public authorities
d. The particulars of the appellant authority
e. The period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c and d only
C. a, c and e only
D. b, d and e only
Question ID 908113
63. The Competition (Amendment) Act. 2023 revamped the competition Act in which of the following perspectives :
a. The CCI needs to be intimated if the value of merger and acquisition deal exceeds Rs. 2000 crores
b. The overall timeline for assessment of combination has been reduced to 150 days from 210 days
c. "Exclusive selling agreements" has been replaced with "exclusive dealing agreement"
d. Entities who are not engaged in identical or similar trade shall also be part of an Anti-competitive Agreement under Section 3(3) of the Act
e. Anti-competitive conduct like "tie-up arrangements" "re-sale price maintenance" and "exclusive distribution agreement" have been redefined.
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. c and e only
C. a, b, c and d only
D. a, b, c, d and e
Question ID 908114
64. Which are the appropriate tax planning perspectives in case of shut down or continue decision under Income Tax Act. 1961?
a. Business loss and unabsorbed depreciation can be carry forward and set off against profit and gain.
b. The loss making company and profit making company may merge to avail the tax benefit
c. Tax benefit of deduction u/s 33 AB and 115 VT may be withdrawn and liable to tax for the year in which business is discontinued.
d. The condition of section 80 IB / 80 IC of the Act a deduction is allowed to such undertaking
e. If a person has more than one business, the loss making business may not be discontinued.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. a, c and d only
B. b, d and e only
C. c, d and e only
D. a, c and e only
Question ID 908115
65. Which of the following are correct for Agricultural Income ?
a. Income from self grown glass, trees, bamboo
b. Rent and Rates derived from land
c. Income from making the produce fit for marketing
d. Income from land used for storing agriculture produce
e. Income from farmhouse
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. b, c and e only
B. b, d and e only
C. a, c and d only
D. c, d and e only
Question ID 908116
66. Match List I with List II
LIST I (A.T. Kearney Globalization Index) | LIST II (Variables) |
a. Economic Integration b. Personal Integration c. Technological Integration d. Political Integration | i. International Tourism and Travel ii. Internet users iii. Foreign Direct Investment iv. Ratification and multilateral treaties |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-iv. b-iii. c-ii. d-i
B. a-iii. b-i. c-ii. d-iv
C. a-iii. b-ii. c-i. d-iv
D. a-iv. b-i. c-ii. d-iii
Question ID 908117
67. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Accounting Concepts) | LIST II (Purpose / Applicability) |
a. Going Concern Concept | i. The same accounting method used by a firm from one period to another |
b. Consistency | ii. Relate to the relative size or importance of an item or event |
c. Cost concept | iii. An inappropriate assumption for firm undergoing bankruptcy |
d. Materiality | iv. The normal basis used to account for assets |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-ii. b-iii. c-iv. d-i
B. a-i. b-ii. c-iii d-iv
C. a-i. b-ii. c-iv. d-iii
D. a-iii. b-i. c-iv. d-ii
Question ID 908118
68. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Herfindahe Index Value ) | LIST II (Market Type) |
a. Zero b. 0 -1,000 c. 1,000 - 1,800 d. 1,800 - 10,000 | i. Oligopoly with high risk of cartels ii. Oligopoly iii. Monopolistic competition iv. Extremely competitive market |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-i. b-ii. c-iii. d-iv
B. a-iv. b-iii. c-ii. d-i
C. a-ii. b-i. c-iii. d-iv
D. a-i. b-iii. c-ii. d-iv
Question ID 908119
69. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Technique) | LIST II (Feature) |
a. Pooling | i. Setting up production facilities in a number of countries |
b. Financial hedge | ii. Reduction of Foreign exchange risk through leading and lagging |
c. Natural hedge | iii. Simultaneous borrowing and lending in two different currencies |
d. Netting | iv. Holding and managing of cash by the affiliates |
Choose the correct answer front the options given below:
A. a-i. b-iv. c-ii. d-iii
B. a-iv. b-iii. c-i. d-ii
C. a-iv. b-ii. c-iii. d-l
D. a-i. b-ii. c-iii. d-iv
Question ID 908120
70. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Non-parametric test (Counterpart of parameter test) | LIST II (Parametric test) |
a. Friedman Test b. Mann-Whitney U Test c. Kriskal Wallis Test d. Wilcoxon signed Rank Test | i. One-way ANOYA ii. t-test iii. Paired t-test iv. two-way ANOYA |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
B. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
C. a-iii, b-i, c-ii,d-iv
D. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Question ID 908121
71. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Motive of human behaviour in organizations) | LIST II (Characteristic) |
a. Achievement b. Control c. Extension d. Dependency | i. Concern for others ii. Concern for self-development iii. Concern for excellence iv. Concern for orderliness |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-iii. b-iv. c-ii. d-i
B. a-iv. b-iii. c-ii. d-i
C. a-ii. b-iv. c-i. d-iii
D. a-iii. b-iv. c-i. d-ii
Question ID 908122
72. Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Consequent outcome)
LIST II
(Taxation Perspective)
a. The person is liable to penalty and prosecution
i. Tax Management
b. Tax is reduced by taking advantage of loopholes of the law
ii. Tax Avoidance
c. Main aim is compliance with legal formalities
iii. Tax Evasion
d. It is a guide in decision making
iv. Tax planning
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-ii, b-iii. c-iv. d-i
B. a-ii, b-iv. c-iii. d-i
C. a-iii, b-ii. c-i. d-iv
D. a-iii, b-i. c-iv. d-ii
Question ID 908123
73. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Purpose) | LIST II (Committee) |
a. Study all aspects of Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT) b. Working group on NBFCs c. Suggest alternate methods of Lending d. Expert group on Foreign exchange markets | i. Rashid Jilani Committee (1992) ii. Soduani Committee (1994) iii. Malegam Committee (1995) iv. Shere Committee (1995) |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-iii, b-i, c-ii. d-iv
B. a-ii, b-i. c-iii. d-iv
C. a-i, b-iii. c-ii. d-iv
D. a-iv, b-iii. c-i. d-ii
Question ID 908124
74. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Retail Store Format) | LIST II (Product assortment) |
a. Discount b. Specialty c. Category Killer d. Supermarket | i. Very narrow and deep ii. Broad and shallow iii. Broad and deep iv. Narrow and very deep |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-ii, b-i. c-iii. d-iv
B. a-i, b-ii. c-iii. d-iv
C. a-iv, b-ii. c-iii. d-i
D. a-ii, b-i. c-iv. d-iii
Question ID 908125
75. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Schedules under the companies Act. 2013) | LIST II (Underlying themes) |
a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV | i. Computation of Depreciation ii. Code for Independent directors iii. Memorandum of Association iv. Preparation of Balance sheet and statement of profit and loss |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
B. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
C. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
D. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
Question ID 908126
76. The steps to be followed by a firm while strategizing to go international are as follows:
a. Deciding when to enter
b. Deciding which markets to enter
c. Deciding whether to go global
d. Choosing a mode of entry
e. Deciding how to enter the chosen market.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. e, d, c, b, a
B. c, a, e, d, b
C. c, b, a. e, d
D. a, b, c, e, d
Question ID 908127
77. Arrange the steps of process costing from beginning and ending with the work in process inventory
a. Summarize total costs to account for work-in-process inventory
b. Compute output hi terms of equivalent unit
c. Compute cost per equivalent unit
d. Summarize the flow of physical units (of output)
e. Assign total cost to units completed and to units in ending work in process.
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. d, b. a. c, e
B. b, c. d, a, e
C. c, b, a. d, e
D. e, d. a. b, c
Question ID 908128
78. Arrange the following goods and services in the increasing order of the underlying income elasticity of demand.
a. Normal consumption goods
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Inferior goods
e. Services
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. d, b. a. e. c
B. d, c. b. a. e
C. c, e. b. a. d
D. b, a. d. c, e
Question ID 908129
79. Sequence the following steps in the operational functioning of the Asset reconstruction companies (as per SARFAESI Act 2002)
a. Charge a 2 percent management fee
b. Issue security receipts to bank
c. Make payment to bank
d. Buys loans of bank at a discount
e. Carry out the recovery
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. d, c, a, e, b
B. d, b. e. a. c
C. d, b. c. e, a
D. d, a. b. e. c
Question ID 908130
80. The problem-definition process involves following steps. Arrange them in a logical sequence.
a. Determine the unit of analysis
b. Determine the relevant variables
c. Write managerial decision statement and research objectives
d. Write research question and or research hypothesis
e. Identify key problems
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. a, b, e. d. c
B. c, d. a. b, e
C. b, e. a. c, d
D. e, c, a, b, d
Question ID 908131
81. As suggested by Collins, arrange the following leadership levels in the sequentially higher order.
a. The leader is a competent manager
b. The leader is an executive
c. The leader is a highly capable individual
d. The leader is an effective leader
e. The leader is a contributing team member.
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. b, c. d, a, e
B. c, e, a. d. b
C. c, a. e. d, b
D. c, e, a, b. d
Question ID 908132
82. Starting from the earliest, sequence the steps taken to develop the money market in India
a. Introduction of Interest Rate Swaps (IRSs)
b. Introduction of Commercial Paper
c. Introduction of Ways and Means Advances (WMA) linked to bank rate
d. Introduction of Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
e. Implementation of Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. c, b. d. a, e
B. d, c. b. e, a
C. b, d. c. a, e
D. b, c. d. a, e
Question ID 908133
83. Arrange the following service gaps as per SERVQUAL approach in the logical sequence.
a. The gap between service quality specifications and service delivery
b. The gap between the customer's expectations end management perception
c. The gap between perceived service and expected service
d. The gap between management perception and service quality specification
e. The gap between service delivery and external communications.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. d, a. b. e, c
B. b, d. a. e. c
C. a, c. b. d. e
D. c, a. b. e. d
Question ID 908134
84. Arrange the following steps in a logical sequence in recourse to dishonouring a negotiable instrument:
a. Noting
b. Compensation
c. Protesting
d. Notice of dishonour
e. Penalties
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. d, a. c. b. e
B. c, d. a. b. e
C. c, d. e. b. a
D. a, c. d. b. e
Question ID 908135
85. Arrange the following advance payment of tax in ascending order (Section 207 to section 211) of the Income Tax Act. 1961.
a. Instalment of advance tax and due date
b. Liability for payment of Advance Tax
c. Payment of advance tax by the assessee on own record
d. Condition of liability to pay advance tax
e. Computation of advance tax
Choose the collect answer from the options given below:
A. b. c. d. e
B. d. e. c. a
C. d. e. a. c
D. d. e. a. b
Question ID 908136
86. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: By removing barriers between national markets, trading blocks create competition due to bigger trading area.
Reason R : Increased competition can lead to the closure of local industry and harm domestic consumption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is collect but R is not correct
D. A is not collect but R is correct
Question ID 908137
87. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: When a partner retires, all the assets and liabilities are revalued according to current value.
Reason R : The balance sheet should show the correct values of assets and liabilities.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is collect but R is not correct
D. A is not collect but R is correct
Question ID 908138
88. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Usually manufacturing companies use sale and lease back arrangement to unlock investment in fixed assets.
Reason R : In a sale of lease back arrangement, the companies sell the asset to a leasing company, and lease it back to enjoy the uninterrupted use of asset in their business.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the collect explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the collect explanation of A
C. A is true but R is not false
D. A is false but R is true
Question ID 908139
89. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The only purpose of logistics management is to coordinate activities of moving products from the factory to customers.
Statement II: Logistics management is only the responsibility of marketing function.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is collect but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Question ID 908140
90. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Certificate of incorporation is conclusive evidence that all the requirements of the Companies Act have been complied with in respect of registration.
Statement II: After incorporation, if the company makes a fresh contract
in terms of the pre-incorporation contract, the liability of the promoters shall come to an end.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is tine
Interoperability guidelines for prepaid payment instruments with United Payments Interface (UPI) bolster the business case for digital wallets. For a loading fee on transactions through UPI. payments banks, for instance, can widen the adoption of wallets among customers and merchants. This increase use cases for UPI, which largely works on a model of free peer- to- peer-merchant transactions. The opportunity provided by the scorching growth of UPI transactions must, however, cross the hurdle of consumer behaviour that is shaped by zero fees for payments made from then bank accounts. For survival, payments banks - which can accept deposits but are prohibited from lending -need to be part of the UPI ecosystem. They also need to carve out a distinct business segment where they have an advantage over full-service banks.
Those use cases are expected to grow as UPI diversifies into cross- border remittances, introduces consumer lending through RuPay credit cards and offers currency exchange to foreign travelers, and bill payments using standing instructions gain traction. UPI will also have to integrate with the digital rupee that is undergoing tests for retail and wholesale transactions. The digital payments platform will continue to play a key role in the infrastructure that is being developed around contactless payments.
This involves building additional UPI context around digital transactions such as billing and credit- profiling. Initial adoption has surpassed the most optimistic expectations. But that is principally on account of the waiver of the merchant discount rate. In the next leg. UPI will grow by providing solutions for the conduct of business. It will have to incorporate lending at some point to become a comprehensive medium of commerce. The infrastructure must encourage fintechs to push innovation in finance. Payments banks have a strong correlation with the growth of digital transactions. They are vital piece of the machinery being built. The interoperability with UPI guidelines plugs them deeper.
Question ID 908141
91. As per the passage, why do the payment banks need to carve out a distinct business segment for themselves?
A. To be a part of the UPI ecosystem
B. Because payment banks are in competition with frill service banks
C. Because payment banks are mandated to push innovation in finance
D. In order to entitle themselves for lending
Question ID 908142
92. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Initial UIP adoption has surpassed the most optimistic expectations on account of the waiver of the merchant discount rate.
Statement II: The future growth of the UPI will be facilitated by providing solution for the conduct of business and to becoming a medium of commerce.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both Statement land Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Question ID 908143
93. Contactless payments infrastructure, as per the passage, will empower fintechs for:
A. Interoperability with the UPI
B. Innovation in finance
C. Integration with the UPI ecosystem
D. Integration with the full service banks
Question ID 908144
94. Which of the following use cases are expected to promotes the growth of payment basses?
a. UPI integration with the digital rupee
b. Dislocation of payment banks from digital transactions
c. UPI facilitation of cross-border remittances
d. Keeping a safe distance from the contactless payment infrastructure
e. Consumer lending through Rupay Credit Cards.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the operations given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. c, d and e only
C. a, c and e only
D. b, d and e only
Question ID 908145
95. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Payment banks - which can accept deposits but are prohibited from lending - need to be part of the UPI ecosystem.
Reason R: Loading fee on transactions through UPI. payment banks can widen the adoption of wallets among customers and merchants.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is not false
D. A is false but R is true
The proposed facility similar to the Applications Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) for secondary markets has elements to protect investors while increasing their potential earnings. The way it works now in the primary market is that money remains blocked in investor accounts, earning interest till issues of Initial Public Offerings (IPO) accept subscriptions. Replicating this for the secondary market is more complicated because of the number of parties, as well as the kinds of transactions, involved. Investors place a variety of orders over differing time horizons with or without leverage for multiple securities in the secondary market. Incorporating all these variables for a mechanism like ABSA involves escrow arrangements with counter parties in a dynamic environment.
The technical challenge may be consider able but not insurmountable. In this, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is on the right course in its effort to provide such a structure for investors. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) allows money used for trading to be transferred directly to clearing corporations, which can then settle with broker's. This flushes out money idling with brokers, lowering risk of abuse and containing the fallout in case of broker- default. This also offers a pathway for direct settlement, bypassing the pool accounts of intermediaries. SEBI has thus, acted on its regulatory remit of protecting investors' cash as well as their securities.
SEBI has offered relief to brokerages that stand to lose float income on account of upstreaming client money to clearing corporations. Brokerages have been allowed to upstream clients' fluids in the form of fixed deposit lien or mutual fluid units. This should keep intermediation fees low while the market regulator nudges the system to clear excess fluids from the broker channel. Higher upfront brokerage fees are an improvement over those subsidised by float income, bettering systemic oversight. This could lead to concentration among brokerages discount players lose their advantage.
Question ID 908146
96. The money used for trading is allowed to be transferred directly to clearing corporation, through
A. Escrow arrangement
B. Unified payments interface
C. E-banking
D. Credit cards
Question ID 908147
97. The Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) used in the passage refers to which market.
A. Primary Market
B. Secondary Market
C. Money Market
D. Forex Market
Question ID 908148
98. The SEBI has acted on its regulatory remit of protecting investors cash and
A. Securities
B. Dividend Income
C. Grievances of payment
D. Public Deposits
Question ID 908149
99. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : SEBI has offered relief to brokerages that stand to lose float income on account of upstreaming client money to dealing corporations.
Reason R: Brokerage have been allowed to upstream clients' fluid in the form of fixed deposit lien or mutual fluid units.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Question ID 908150
100. Which are reasons that make replication of ASBA for the secondary market complicated:
a. Kinds of transactions
b. Presence of large number of brokers
c. Applicability of SEBI guideline
d. Number of Parties
e. Differing time horizon
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. c, d and e only
B. a, b and c only
C. a and d only
D. b and c only
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