NTA UGC NET COMMERCE JUNE 2023 PAPER – II SHIFT I
NTA UGC NET COMMERCE JUNE 2023 PAPER – II SHIFT I
Question ID 908051
1. In totalitarianism, called authoritarianism,
individual freedom is subordinated to the power of the authority of a group or
state. Which of the following is not a type of totalitarianism?
A. Theocratic
B. Right Wing
C. Tribal
D. Conservative
Question ID 908052
2. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade
(DGFT) facilitates and promotes foreign trade in India and also implements the
foreign trade policy of India. Which of the following union ministry governs
the DGFT?
A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B. Ministry of Science and Technology
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Ministry of External Affair's
Question ID 908053
3. In which of the following balance of payment
accounts changes in holdings of gold and foreign currencies by official
monetary institutions are accounted for.
A. Current Account
B. Capital Account
C. Official Reserves Account
D. Foreign Exchange Account
Question ID 908054
4. Regional Economic Integration is an attempt
to achieve economic gains from the free flow of trade and investment between
countries. One such association is NAFTA. NAFTA comprises of the following
countries:
A. USA. Canada. Mexico
B. USA. Canada. Brazil
C. USA. Mexico. Brazil
D. Canada. Mexico. Panama
Question ID 908055
5. Who was of the opinion that labour was
"the father of wealth" and it must be included in any estimate of
national wealth?
A. William Far
B. William Petty
C. William C. Pyle
D. Flamholtz
Question ID 908056
6. A and B are equal partners, when partnership
is dissolved, then capital are Rs. 40000 and Rs. 50000 respectively. After all
assets are sold and liabilities paid, there is a cash balance of Rs. 80000.
What is the amount of profit or loss on realization?
A. 10000 (Profit)
B. 20000 (Profit)
C. 30000 (Profit)
D. 10000 (Loss)
Question ID 908057
7. From the following information you are
required to compute Return on Total Capital employed.
Net Profit Rs. 100.000
Provision for tax Rs. 100.000
Income from Investment Rs. 10.000
Fixed Assets Rs. 450.000
Current assets Rs. 1.50.000
Interest on debenture Rs. 10.000
Reserves Rs. 100.000
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 40%
Question ID 908058
8. Which of the following is not the limitation
of activity based costing?
A. It involves various support activities in the
process of making products.
B. It does not provide relevant information for
decision making.
C. All costs cannot be identified easily with a
particular activity
D. Set up cost as well as costs of running and
updating the ABC system are very high.
Question ID 908059
9. Substitution effect is usually larger than
the income effect ill real world because
A. Consumes usually spends only a small
proportion of income on any one community
B. Consumer often consumes a small number of
commodities
C. Consumer only spends small portion of income
or consumption
D. Consumers income is relatively smaller in
relation to the consumption.
Question ID 908060
10. The practice of setting a price target by
the firm and then developing a product that would allow the firm to maximize
total profits at that price is called ___
A. Prestige pricing
B. Price lining
C. Price matching
D. Value pricing
Question ID 908061
11. Empirical studies indicate that long run
average cost (LAC) curve is _____
A. L-shaped
B. U-shaped
C. S-shaped
D. V-shaped
Question ID 908062
12. Which of the following form of market
organization is the most prevalent in the manufacturing sector?
A. Perfect competition
B. Monopolistic competition
C. Oligopoly
D. Duopoly
Question ID 908063
13. Which of the following describe an
intervention currency :
A. The currency in which exporter choose to
invoice then- exports
B. The currency in which cross-border
transactions are paid for and closed
C. The currency in terms of which a domestic
currency is quoted
D. The vehicle currency
Question ID 908064
14. From the followings which is an uncommon
feature of Private Equity and Venture Capital.
A. Both invest in companies that are not able to
or ready to gam capital from the public
B. Their investment is used for financial or
operating restructuring of the invester companies
C. They are set up an independent pools of
capital contributed by institutions or the high net worth individuals
D. Their activities are subject to few
regulations
Question ID 908065
15. The total return for an equity stock during
a year was 12.5 per cent. The rate of inflation during that year was 3.5 per
cent. The real (inflation-adjusted) return was:
A. 9.26 per cent
B. 16.00 per cent
C. 7.65 per cent
D. 8.70 per cent
Question ID 908066
16. The optimal capital budget of a firm is
reflected by intersection point of
A. Security market line and capital market line
B. Weighted average cost of capital curve and
marginal cost of capital curve
C. Investment opportunity curve and marginal
cost of capital curve
D. Weighted average cost of capital curve and
investment opportunity curve.
Question ID 908067
17. In case of two variables, the estimated
regression equation is y = 60+5x. The total sum of squares is 15730 and sum of
square due to error is 1530. The estimated regression line based on this
information is a
A. Poorest fit
B. Moderate fit
C. Good fit
D. Best fit
Question ID 908068
18. Experimental treatment in research design
signifies which of the following ?
A. Selection of dependent variable
B. Manipulating independent variable
C. Selection of independent variable
D. Manipulating dependent variable
Question ID 908069
19. A point estimator is said to be consistent
when
A. It has smaller standard error
B. Its expected value is equal to the population
parameter
C. It tend to become closer to the population
parameter as the sample size become larger
D. It is based on all available information
Question ID 908070
20. A population has a mean of 200 and a
standard deviation of 50. Suppose a simple random sample of size 100 is
selected then the probability that the sample mean will be ± 5 of the
population mean is ____
A. 0.7523
B. 0.6928
C. 0.9544
D. 0.6826
Question ID 908071
21. In the process of perception, which one of
the following is not an external factor influencing selection of stimuli?
A. Experience
B. Familiarity
C. Repetition
D. Novelty
Question ID 908072
22. Which one of the following values is not a
part of OCTAPACE framework?
A. Openness
B. Extension
C. Proactivity
D. Autonomy
Question ID 908073
23. Which one of the following is the hiring
related turnover cost when an employee quits an organization?
A. Advertising
B. Interviewing
C. Training
D. Recruiter fees
Question ID 908074
24. Which one of the following normative ethical
theories has "Net benefit from the decision" as consideration in
ethical decision making?
A. Ethics of duty
B. Theory of justice
C. Stock holder ethics
D. Utilitarianism
Question ID 908075
25. Which committee had recommended a comprehensive
framework of reform in the insurance sector?
A. Ghosh Committee (1993)
B. Sodhani Committee (1994)
C. Malhotra Committee (1993)
D. Kalia Committee (1994)
Question ID 908076
26. Mutual Funds in India are regulated by:
A. Unit Trust of India
B. Department for Promotion of Industries and
Internal trade
C. The Securities and Exchange Boar d of India
D. Department of financial Services
Question ID 908077
27. Which one of the following is a fully owned
subsidiary of the R.B.I?
A. Indian Institute of Bank Management (IIBM)
B. National Institute of Bank Management (NIBM)
C. Indian Institute of Banking and Finance
(IIBF)
D. Indian Financial T
echnology and Allied Services (IFTAS)
Question ID 908078
28. Which one group of the following countries
are members of ASEAN?
A. Laos. Cambodia. Brunei
B. Malaysia. Thailand. Taiwan
C. Myanmar. Singapore, Hong Kong
D. Fiji. Laos. Cambodia
Question ID 908079
29. Which one of the advertising planning
strategies is suitable for cars and appliances?
A. Informative strategy
B. Affective strategy
C. Habitual strategy
D. Satisfaction strategy
Question ID 908080
30. In which of the following segmentation
criteria, the predictability of consumer choice behaviour is the highest?
A. Psychological
B. Demographic
C. Behavioural
D. Geodemographic
Question ID 908081
31. The sales step in which a salesperson leams
as much as possible about a prospective customer before making a sales call is
known as ___
A. Approach
B. Prospecting
C. Pre-approach
D. Presentation
Question ID 908082
32. All attacking strategy which involves
introducing new products or technologies that rewrite the rules of competition
in the market and avoid direct conflict with a rival is known as ____
A. Flanking
B. Bypass
C. Encirclement
D. Guerrilla
Question ID 908083
33. 'A' sells a mobile phone to 'B' a minor who
pays for it by his cheque. A' endorses the cheque to 'C' who takes it hi good
faith and for value. The cheque is dishonoured on presentation. Can 'C' enforce
payment of the cheque ?
A. ‘C’ can enforce the payment of cheque only
against ‘A'
B. ‘C’ can enforce the payment of cheque either
against ‘A' or 'B'
C. ‘C’ can enforce payment of cheque both
against ‘A’ and 'B'
D. ‘C’ can enforce the payment of cheque only
against 'B'
Question ID 908084
34. The doctrine of “Caveat emptor” applies in
which of the following situations?
A. When goods are sold by description
B. When goods are sold by sample
C. When goods are sold under implied conditions
and warranties
D. When the buyer does not intimate the purpose
to the seller and depends upon his own skill and judgement.
Question ID 908085
35. A letter of acceptance sufficiently stamped
and duly addressed is put into course of transmission. There is a _____
A. Contract voidable at the option of acceptor
B. Contract voidable at the option of offeror
C. No contract at all
D. Valid contract
Question ID 908086
36. Oil attaining the age of majority, a minor's
agreement
A. Can be ratified by him
B. Cannot be ratified by him
C. Becomes void
D. Becomes valid
Question ID 908087
37. X was appointed on 1st July 2022 as a
lecturer in an University. He was continued on 30th April 2023. What would be
the duration of the previous year for the assessment year 2023-24 for
computation of income under the head Salary?
A. 1 July 2022 to 30 April 2023
B. 1 April 2022 to 31 Match 2023
C. 1 April 2022 to 30 April 2023
D. 1 July 2022 to 31 March 2023
Question ID 908088
38. When the income of a minor child is clubbed
with the income of mother or father, how much the deduction will be allowed to
mother or father?
A. Rs. 1500
B. Rs. 2000
C. Actual income clubbed with the income of
mother or father, whichever is less
D. No deduction
Question ID 908089
39. A multinational company can use which prices
to create profits in low tax regimes and loss in high tax regimes?
A. Divisional prices
B. Inter-Divisional Prices
C. Holding company prices
D. Transfer prices
Question ID 908090
40. "It is an art of dodging tax without
actually breaking the law". This is related with:
A. Tax Management
B. Tax Avoidance
C. Tax Planning
D. Tax Evasion
Question ID 908091
41. Which of the following one considered as
supply factors affecting the flow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
a. Customer Access
b. Economic Priorities
c. Resource Availability
d. Avoidance of Trade Barrier
e. Logistics
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. a and b only
B. b and d only
C. c and e only
D. a and e only
Question ID 908092
42. For customer's, which are the areas of
ethical and social responsibility concerns?
a. Product safety
b. Fair Price
c. Fan Wages
d. TQM
e. Proper disclosures and information
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. c and d only
B. c, d and e only
C. a and e only
D. a, b and e only
Question ID 908093
43. Section 61 to 64 of the company act 2013
states 'Alteration proper' which includes:
a. Cancellation of the unissued shares
b. Cancellation of issued shares
c. Increase in share capital by issue of new
shar e
d. Decrease of share capital by redemption of
shares
e. Conversion of fully paid shares into stock
and vice versa.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. b, c and d only
B. a, c and e only
C. c, d and e only
D. a, b and c only
Question ID 908094
44. From the operational point of view, which
are the part of Environmental Audit
a. Environment Management System Audit
b. Social Audit
c. Compliance Audit
d. Site Property Audit
e. Energy Audit
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. c, d and e only
B. a, c and d only
C. b, c and d only
D. a, d and e only
Question ID 908095
45. Which of the following cause demand of a
product to increase?
a. An increase in consumer's income
b. An increase in the prices of substitutes
c. An increase in the price of complements
d. An increase in the number of substitutes
e. An increased taste for the commodity.
Choose the collect answer horn the options given
below:
A. a, b and c only
B. c, d and e only
C. b, d and e only
D. a, b and e only
Question ID 908096
46. According to the theory of contestable
markets, vigorous competition can take place even among few sellers if ___ and
____ .
a. Product is differentiated
b. Demand is infinitely elastic
c. Entry into the market is absolutely free
d. There are strong entry-exit barriers
e. Exit from the market is entirely costless.
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. a and d only
B. b and e only
C. a and c only
D. c and e only
Question ID 908097
47. Under which of the following market
structures, products are differentiated and close substitutes?
a. Perfect competition
b. Monopolistic competition
c. Oligopoly
d. Duopoly
e. Monopoly
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c and d only
C. c, d and e only
D. a, c and d only
Question ID 908098
48. Which of the following are the
characteristics of the Euro Currency market?
a. The euro currency market does not have
geographical limits
b. The euro currency market is unregulated
c. The euro currency market does not have
deposit insurance
d. There are no restriction on the maximum
interest payable or chargeable.
e. The euro currency market does not attract CRR
and SLR restrictions.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, e and d only
C. e, c and a only
D. d, a and e only
Question ID 908099
49. The assumptions of Purchasing Power Parity
Theory includes:
a. No costs for converting one currency to
another
b. No restrictions on the movement of capital
between countries
c. No restrictions on the movement of
commodities between countries
d. No transaction costs for buying and selling
financial security
e. No transportation costs for transporting a
commodity from one country to another.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, d and c only
C. e, a and c only
D. d, a and e only
Question ID 908100
50. A box-plot is a graphical summary measures
of data that displays
a. Mean
b. Q1
c. Median
d. Q3
e. Mode
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. c and e only
B. a, c and e only
C. c, d and b only
D. d, b and a only
Question ID 908101
51. In case of presence of outliers in a data
set. which of the following can better measure the central tendency ?
a. Mode
b. Trimmed Mean
c. Arithmetic Mean
d. Median
e. Harmonic Mean
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. a and b only
B. b and c only
C. c and e only
D. b and d only
Question ID 908102
52. To remove 'order bias' in a questionnaire,
usually researcher use which of the following:
a. Pivot questions
b. Multiple grid questions
c. Funnel technique
d. Filter questions
e. Leading questions
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below':
A. b, e and a only
B. d, e and b only
C. e, b and c only
D. c, d and a only
Question ID 908103
53. Which of the following are skills and
capabilities related competencies?
a. Analysis
b. Intellectual curiosity
c. Organization
d. Problem solving
e. Ownership of assignments
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. a, c and d only
B. a, b and c only
C. b, c and d only
D. a, d and e only
Question ID 908104
54. Which of the following are the disadvantages
of straight salary sales compensation plan?
a. Sales volume is emphasized over profits
b. Sales representative may overstock the
customer
c. Low motivational impact
d. Difficult to attract or retain top sales
performers
e. Sales representatives may focus on products
that require least effort to sell
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. c, d and e only
B. a, b and c only
C. b, d and e only
D. a, c and d only
Question ID 908105
55. Which of the interventions can be used to
manage the anxiety created by mergers and acquisitions
a. Speed-up of the integration process
b. Articulate a new vision, common goals and
organizational symbols
c. Employee counselling and stress management
training
d. Disengage efforts such as termination
ceremonies
e. Social support from spouse, friends,
supervisors and co-workers
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c and d only
C. a, c and e only
D. a, b and e only
Question ID 908106
56. Which is the legal framework governing the
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
a. Regional Rural Banks Act. 1976
b. Regional Rural Banks Act. 1966
c. Small Industries Development Bank of India.
1989
d. Banking Regulations Act. 1949
e. Indian Partnership Act. 1932
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a and d only
B. b and d only
C. a and c only
D. b and e only
Question ID 908107
57. Which are the RBI notified domestic
accredited credit rating agencies?
a. Brickwork ratings
b. Acvite ratings
c. CRISIL ratings
d. Standard and Poor's
e. Moody's
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. b and c only
B. c and d only
C. a and c only
D. c and e only
Question ID 908108
58. In the context of banking sector, spread is
defined as a function of the following :
a. Forex
b. Net Interest income
c. Rate Sensitive Assets
d. Asset Ratio
e. Leverage Ratio
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. c and e only
B. a and c only
C. b and d only
D. b and e only
Question ID 908109
59. Which of the following are the reasons for
manufacturers and retailers to brand their offerings?
a. Helps to gauge the level of product quality
b. Enables premium pricing
c. Contributes to corporate identity programmes
d. Informs about the source of a product
e. Develops customer loyalty.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. a, b, c and e only
B. b, c and e only
C. a, b, c and d only
D. a, d and e only
Question ID 908110
60. Which of the following are the tools for
consumer promotions?
a. Price off
b. Refunds
c. Coupons
d. Event sponsorship
e. Off-invoice
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c, d and e
C. a, d and e only
D. b, c and d only
Question ID 908111
61. All agent is personally liable to third
parties in which of the following situations?
a. If an agent acts for an undisclosed Principal
b. Trade usage and customs makes agent
personally liable
c. If an agent signs a contract in Principal's
name
d. If an agent acts for the named Principal
e. If an agent works for a foreign Principal.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a, b and c only
B. a, b and e only
C. c, d and e only
D. b, c and d only
Question ID 908112
62. If the application for information is
rejected under the Right to Information Act 2005. the CPIO/SPIO is obligated
which of the following to furnish the person seeking the information?
a. Power and functions of information commission
b. Reasons for such rejection
c. Obligation of public authorities
d. The particulars of the appellant authority
e. The period within which an appeal against
such rejection may be preferred
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a, b and c only
B. b, c and d only
C. a, c and e only
D. b, d and e only
Question ID 908113
63. The Competition (Amendment) Act. 2023
revamped the competition Act in which of the following perspectives :
a. The CCI needs to be intimated if the value of
merger and acquisition deal exceeds Rs. 2000 crores
b. The overall timeline for assessment of
combination has been reduced to 150 days from 210 days
c. "Exclusive selling agreements" has
been replaced with "exclusive dealing agreement"
d. Entities who are not engaged in identical or
similar trade shall also be part of an Anti-competitive Agreement under Section
3(3) of the Act
e. Anti-competitive conduct like "tie-up
arrangements" "re-sale price maintenance" and "exclusive
distribution agreement" have been redefined.
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. a, b and c only
B. c and e only
C. a, b, c and d only
D. a, b, c, d and e
Question ID 908114
64. Which are the appropriate tax planning
perspectives in case of shut down or continue decision under Income Tax Act.
1961?
a. Business loss and unabsorbed depreciation can
be carry forward and set off against profit and gain.
b. The loss making company and profit making
company may merge to avail the tax benefit
c. Tax benefit of deduction u/s 33 AB and 115 VT
may be withdrawn and liable to tax for the year in which business is
discontinued.
d. The condition of section 80 IB / 80 IC of the
Act a deduction is allowed to such undertaking
e. If a person has more than one business, the
loss making business may not be discontinued.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. a, c and d only
B. b, d and e only
C. c, d and e only
D. a, c and e only
Question ID 908115
65. Which of the following are correct for
Agricultural Income ?
a. Income from self grown glass, trees, bamboo
b. Rent and Rates derived from land
c. Income from making the produce fit for
marketing
d. Income from land used for storing agriculture
produce
e. Income from farmhouse
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. b, c and e only
B. b, d and e only
C. a, c and d only
D. c, d and e only
Question ID 908116
66. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (A.T. Kearney Globalization Index) |
LIST II (Variables) |
|
a. Economic Integration b. Personal Integration c. Technological Integration d. Political Integration |
i. International Tourism and Travel ii. Internet users iii. Foreign Direct Investment iv. Ratification and multilateral treaties |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-iv. b-iii. c-ii. d-i
B. a-iii. b-i. c-ii. d-iv
C. a-iii. b-ii. c-i. d-iv
D. a-iv. b-i. c-ii. d-iii
Question ID 908117
67. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Accounting
Concepts) |
LIST II (Purpose /
Applicability) |
|
a. Going Concern Concept |
i. The same accounting method used by a firm
from one period to another |
|
b. Consistency |
ii. Relate to the relative size or importance
of an item or event |
|
c. Cost concept |
iii. An inappropriate assumption for firm undergoing
bankruptcy |
|
d. Materiality |
iv. The normal basis used to account for
assets |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-ii. b-iii. c-iv. d-i
B. a-i. b-ii. c-iii d-iv
C. a-i. b-ii. c-iv. d-iii
D. a-iii. b-i. c-iv. d-ii
Question ID 908118
68. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Herfindahe
Index Value ) |
LIST II (Market Type) |
|
a. Zero b. 0 -1,000 c. 1,000 - 1,800 d. 1,800 - 10,000 |
i. Oligopoly with high risk of cartels ii. Oligopoly iii. Monopolistic competition iv. Extremely competitive market |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-i. b-ii. c-iii. d-iv
B. a-iv. b-iii. c-ii. d-i
C. a-ii. b-i. c-iii. d-iv
D. a-i. b-iii. c-ii. d-iv
Question ID 908119
69. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Technique) |
LIST II (Feature) |
|
a. Pooling |
i. Setting up production facilities in a
number of countries |
|
b. Financial hedge |
ii. Reduction of Foreign exchange risk through
leading and lagging |
|
c. Natural hedge |
iii. Simultaneous borrowing and lending in two
different currencies |
|
d. Netting |
iv. Holding and managing of cash by the
affiliates |
Choose the correct answer front the options
given below:
A. a-i. b-iv. c-ii. d-iii
B. a-iv. b-iii. c-i. d-ii
C. a-iv. b-ii. c-iii. d-l
D. a-i. b-ii. c-iii. d-iv
Question ID 908120
70. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Non-parametric
test (Counterpart of parameter test) |
LIST II (Parametric
test) |
|
a. Friedman Test b. Mann-Whitney U Test c. Kriskal Wallis Test d. Wilcoxon signed Rank Test |
i. One-way ANOYA ii. t-test iii. Paired t-test iv. two-way ANOYA |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
B. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
C. a-iii, b-i, c-ii,d-iv
D. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Question ID 908121
71. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Motive of
human behaviour in organizations) |
LIST II (Characteristic) |
|
a. Achievement b. Control c. Extension d. Dependency |
i. Concern for others ii. Concern for self-development iii. Concern for excellence iv. Concern for orderliness |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-iii. b-iv. c-ii. d-i
B. a-iv. b-iii. c-ii. d-i
C. a-ii. b-iv. c-i. d-iii
D. a-iii. b-iv. c-i. d-ii
Question ID 908122
72. Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Consequent outcome)
LIST II
(Taxation Perspective)
a. The person is liable to penalty and
prosecution
i. Tax Management
b. Tax is reduced by taking advantage of
loopholes of the law
ii. Tax Avoidance
c. Main aim is compliance with legal formalities
iii. Tax Evasion
d. It is a guide in decision making
iv. Tax planning
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-ii, b-iii. c-iv. d-i
B. a-ii, b-iv. c-iii. d-i
C. a-iii, b-ii. c-i. d-iv
D. a-iii, b-i. c-iv. d-ii
Question ID 908123
73. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Purpose) |
LIST II (Committee) |
|
a. Study all aspects of Electronic Fund
Transfer (EFT) b. Working group on NBFCs c. Suggest alternate methods of Lending d. Expert group on Foreign exchange markets |
i. Rashid Jilani Committee (1992) ii. Soduani Committee (1994) iii. Malegam Committee (1995) iv. Shere Committee (1995) |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-iii, b-i, c-ii. d-iv
B. a-ii, b-i. c-iii. d-iv
C. a-i, b-iii. c-ii. d-iv
D. a-iv, b-iii. c-i. d-ii
Question ID 908124
74. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Retail Store
Format) |
LIST II (Product
assortment) |
|
a. Discount b. Specialty c. Category Killer d. Supermarket |
i. Very narrow and deep ii. Broad and shallow iii. Broad and deep iv. Narrow and very deep |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-ii, b-i. c-iii. d-iv
B. a-i, b-ii. c-iii. d-iv
C. a-iv, b-ii. c-iii. d-i
D. a-ii, b-i. c-iv. d-iii
Question ID 908125
75. Match List I with List II
|
LIST I (Schedules under the
companies Act. 2013) |
LIST II (Underlying themes) |
|
a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV |
i. Computation of Depreciation ii. Code for Independent directors iii. Memorandum of Association iv. Preparation of Balance sheet and statement
of profit and loss |
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
B. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
C. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
D. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
Question ID 908126
76. The steps to be followed by a firm while
strategizing to go international are as follows:
a. Deciding when to enter
b. Deciding which markets to enter
c. Deciding whether to go global
d. Choosing a mode of entry
e. Deciding how to enter the chosen market.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. e, d, c, b, a
B. c, a, e, d, b
C. c, b, a. e, d
D. a, b, c, e, d
Question ID 908127
77. Arrange the steps of process costing from
beginning and ending with the work in process inventory
a. Summarize total costs to account for
work-in-process inventory
b. Compute output hi terms of equivalent unit
c. Compute cost per equivalent unit
d. Summarize the flow of physical units (of
output)
e. Assign total cost to units completed and to
units in ending work in process.
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. d, b. a. c, e
B. b, c. d, a, e
C. c, b, a. d, e
D. e, d. a. b, c
Question ID 908128
78. Arrange the following goods and services in
the increasing order of the underlying income elasticity of demand.
a. Normal consumption goods
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Inferior goods
e. Services
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. d, b. a. e. c
B. d, c. b. a. e
C. c, e. b. a. d
D. b, a. d. c, e
Question ID 908129
79. Sequence the following steps in the
operational functioning of the Asset reconstruction companies (as per SARFAESI
Act 2002)
a. Charge a 2 percent management fee
b. Issue security receipts to bank
c. Make payment to bank
d. Buys loans of bank at a discount
e. Carry out the recovery
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. d, c, a, e, b
B. d, b. e. a. c
C. d, b. c. e, a
D. d, a. b. e. c
Question ID 908130
80. The problem-definition process involves
following steps. Arrange them in a logical sequence.
a. Determine the unit of analysis
b. Determine the relevant variables
c. Write managerial decision statement and
research objectives
d. Write research question and or research
hypothesis
e. Identify key problems
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. a, b, e. d. c
B. c, d. a. b, e
C. b, e. a. c, d
D. e, c, a, b, d
Question ID 908131
81. As suggested by Collins, arrange the
following leadership levels in the sequentially higher order.
a. The leader is a competent manager
b. The leader is an executive
c. The leader is a highly capable individual
d. The leader is an effective leader
e. The leader is a contributing team member.
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. b, c. d, a, e
B. c, e, a. d. b
C. c, a. e. d, b
D. c, e, a, b. d
Question ID 908132
82. Starting from the earliest, sequence the
steps taken to develop the money market in India
a. Introduction of Interest Rate Swaps (IRSs)
b. Introduction of Commercial Paper
c. Introduction of Ways and Means Advances (WMA)
linked to bank rate
d. Introduction of Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(LAF)
e. Implementation of Real Time Gross Settlement
(RTGS)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. c, b. d. a, e
B. d, c. b. e, a
C. b, d. c. a, e
D. b, c. d. a, e
Question ID 908133
83. Arrange the following service gaps as per
SERVQUAL approach in the logical sequence.
a. The gap between service quality
specifications and service delivery
b. The gap between the customer's expectations
end management perception
c. The gap between perceived service and
expected service
d. The gap between management perception and
service quality specification
e. The gap between service delivery and external
communications.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. d, a. b. e, c
B. b, d. a. e. c
C. a, c. b. d. e
D. c, a. b. e. d
Question ID 908134
84. Arrange the following steps in a logical
sequence in recourse to dishonouring a negotiable instrument:
a. Noting
b. Compensation
c. Protesting
d. Notice of dishonour
e. Penalties
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. d, a. c. b. e
B. c, d. a. b. e
C. c, d. e. b. a
D. a, c. d. b. e
Question ID 908135
85. Arrange the following advance payment of tax
in ascending order (Section 207 to section 211) of the Income Tax Act. 1961.
a. Instalment of advance tax and due date
b. Liability for payment of Advance Tax
c. Payment of advance tax by the assessee on own
record
d. Condition of liability to pay advance tax
e. Computation of advance tax
Choose the collect answer from the options given
below:
A. b. c. d. e
B. d. e. c. a
C. d. e. a. c
D. d. e. a. b
Question ID 908136
86. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: By removing barriers between
national markets, trading blocks create competition due to bigger trading area.
Reason R : Increased competition can lead to the
closure of local industry and harm domestic consumption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C. A is collect but R is not correct
D. A is not collect but R is correct
Question ID 908137
87. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: When a partner retires, all the
assets and liabilities are revalued according to current value.
Reason R : The balance sheet should show the
correct values of assets and liabilities.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C. A is collect but R is not correct
D. A is not collect but R is correct
Question ID 908138
88. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Usually manufacturing companies use
sale and lease back arrangement to unlock investment in fixed assets.
Reason R : In a sale of lease back arrangement,
the companies sell the asset to a leasing company, and lease it back to enjoy
the uninterrupted use of asset in their business.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the collect
explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
collect explanation of A
C. A is true but R is not false
D. A is false but R is true
Question ID 908139
89. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The only purpose of logistics
management is to coordinate activities of moving products from the factory to
customers.
Statement II: Logistics management is only the
responsibility of marketing function.
In the light of the above statements choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
C. Statement I is collect but Statement II is
incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
Question ID 908140
90. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Certificate of incorporation is
conclusive evidence that all the requirements of the Companies Act have been
complied with in respect of registration.
Statement II: After incorporation, if the
company makes a fresh contract
in terms of the pre-incorporation contract, the
liability of the promoters shall come to an end.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is tine
Interoperability guidelines for prepaid payment
instruments with United Payments Interface (UPI) bolster the business case for
digital wallets. For a loading fee on transactions through UPI. payments banks,
for instance, can widen the adoption of wallets among customers and merchants.
This increase use cases for UPI, which largely works on a model of free peer- to-
peer-merchant transactions. The opportunity provided by the scorching growth of
UPI transactions must, however, cross the hurdle of consumer behaviour that is
shaped by zero fees for payments made from then bank accounts. For survival,
payments banks - which can accept deposits but are prohibited from lending
-need to be part of the UPI ecosystem. They also need to carve out a distinct
business segment where they have an advantage over full-service banks.
Those use cases are expected to grow as UPI diversifies
into cross- border remittances, introduces consumer lending through RuPay
credit cards and offers currency exchange to foreign travelers, and bill
payments using standing instructions gain traction. UPI will also have to
integrate with the digital rupee that is undergoing tests for retail and
wholesale transactions. The digital payments platform will continue to play a
key role in the infrastructure that is being developed around contactless
payments.
This involves building additional UPI context around
digital transactions such as billing and credit- profiling. Initial adoption
has surpassed the most optimistic expectations. But that is principally on
account of the waiver of the merchant discount rate. In the next leg. UPI will
grow by providing solutions for the conduct of business. It will have to
incorporate lending at some point to become a comprehensive medium of commerce.
The infrastructure must encourage fintechs to push innovation in finance.
Payments banks have a strong correlation with the growth of digital
transactions. They are vital piece of the machinery being built. The
interoperability with UPI guidelines plugs them deeper.
Question ID 908141
91. As per the passage, why do the payment banks
need to carve out a distinct business segment for themselves?
A. To be a part of the UPI ecosystem
B. Because payment banks are in competition with
frill service banks
C. Because payment banks are mandated to push
innovation in finance
D. In order to entitle themselves for lending
Question ID 908142
92. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Initial UIP adoption has surpassed
the most optimistic expectations on account of the waiver of the merchant
discount rate.
Statement II: The future growth of the UPI will
be facilitated by providing solution for the conduct of business and to
becoming a medium of commerce.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Both Statement land Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
Question ID 908143
93. Contactless payments infrastructure, as per
the passage, will empower fintechs for:
A. Interoperability with the UPI
B. Innovation in finance
C. Integration with the UPI ecosystem
D. Integration with the full service banks
Question ID 908144
94. Which of the following use cases are
expected to promotes the growth of payment basses?
a. UPI integration with the digital rupee
b. Dislocation of payment banks from digital
transactions
c. UPI facilitation of cross-border remittances
d. Keeping a safe distance from the contactless
payment infrastructure
e. Consumer lending through Rupay Credit Cards.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
operations given below:
A. a, b and c only
B. c, d and e only
C. a, c and e only
D. b, d and e only
Question ID 908145
95. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Payment banks - which can accept
deposits but are prohibited from lending - need to be part of the UPI
ecosystem.
Reason R: Loading fee on transactions through
UPI. payment banks can widen the adoption of wallets among customers and
merchants.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is not false
D. A is false but R is true
The proposed facility similar to the
Applications Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) for secondary markets has
elements to protect investors while increasing their potential earnings. The
way it works now in the primary market is that money remains blocked in
investor accounts, earning interest till issues of Initial Public Offerings
(IPO) accept subscriptions. Replicating this for the secondary market is more
complicated because of the number of parties, as well as the kinds of
transactions, involved. Investors place a variety of orders over differing time
horizons with or without leverage for multiple securities in the secondary
market. Incorporating all these variables for a mechanism like ABSA involves
escrow arrangements with counter parties in a dynamic environment.
The technical challenge may be consider able but
not insurmountable. In this, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
is on the right course in its effort to provide such a structure for investors.
The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) allows money used for trading to be
transferred directly to clearing corporations, which can then settle with
broker's. This flushes out money idling with brokers, lowering risk of abuse
and containing the fallout in case of broker- default. This also offers a
pathway for direct settlement, bypassing the pool accounts of intermediaries.
SEBI has thus, acted on its regulatory remit of protecting investors' cash as
well as their securities.
SEBI has offered relief to brokerages that stand
to lose float income on account of upstreaming client money to clearing
corporations. Brokerages have been allowed to upstream clients' fluids in the
form of fixed deposit lien or mutual fluid units. This should keep
intermediation fees low while the market regulator nudges the system to clear
excess fluids from the broker channel. Higher upfront brokerage fees are an
improvement over those subsidised by float income, bettering systemic oversight.
This could lead to concentration among brokerages discount players lose their
advantage.
Question ID 908146
96. The money used for trading is allowed to be
transferred directly to clearing corporation, through
A. Escrow arrangement
B. Unified payments interface
C. E-banking
D. Credit cards
Question ID 908147
97. The Application Supported by Blocked Amount
(ASBA) used in the passage refers to which market.
A. Primary Market
B. Secondary Market
C. Money Market
D. Forex Market
Question ID 908148
98. The SEBI has acted on its regulatory remit
of protecting investors cash and
A. Securities
B. Dividend Income
C. Grievances of payment
D. Public Deposits
Question ID 908149
99. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : SEBI has offered relief to
brokerages that stand to lose float income on account of upstreaming client
money to dealing corporations.
Reason R: Brokerage have been allowed to
upstream clients' fluid in the form of fixed deposit lien or mutual fluid
units.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Question ID 908150
100. Which are reasons that make replication of
ASBA for the secondary market complicated:
a. Kinds of transactions
b. Presence of large number of brokers
c. Applicability of SEBI guideline
d. Number of Parties
e. Differing time horizon
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
A. c, d and e only
B. a, b and c only
C. a and d only
D. b and c only
Comments
Post a Comment